1 Which of the following is NOT one of the three fundamental features of science?
a empirical questions
b public knowledge
c mathematical equations
d systematic empiricism
2 A set of beliefs can be said to be pseudoscientific if it lacks one or more of the three features of science and _____.
aits adherents claim or imply that it is scientific
b it has been discredited by scientific research
c it seems “crazy”
d it refers to phenomena that cannot be directly observed
3 Research questions in psychology can come from which of the following?
a previous research
b informal observations
c practical problems to be solved
d all of the above
4 Which of the following is a categorical variable?
a eye color
b IQ
c number of lifetime sexual partners
d shoe size
5 A research methods student conducts a study on the relationship between people’s level of extroversion and the number of close friends they have. She computes Pearson’s r, which comes out to be – 1.70. Which of the following is most clearly true?
a The relationship between the two variables is weak.
b More extroverted people have fewer friends.
c She ought to use a bar graph to display her results.
d She made an error in computing Pearson’s r.
6 When you want to show that Variable X has a direct effect on Variable Y, what is the best kind of study to conduct?
aanonexperimental study
b an experiment
c an observational study
d a survey
7 The relationship between people’s heights and weights is positive.
a True
b False
8 In a negative relationship, higher scores on one variable are associated with lower scores on another variable.
a True
b False
9 Pearson’s r cannot be negative.
a True
b False
10 What three groups must be taken into account in the consideration of the ethics of a research project?
a society
b clinical practitioners
c the scientific community
d research participants
11 In Milgram’s famous study, who was the confederate?
athe person being shocked
b the experimenter
c the person doing the shocking
d none of the above
12 Which of the following occurred in the infamous Tuskegee syphilis study?
a Research participants were told they had syphilis even though they did not to see how they would react.
b Research participants were denied treatment for their syphilis.
c Research participants were injected with syphilis bacteria.
d Research participants were give experimental treatments for syphilis.
13 Research on the effectiveness of normal educational activities would generally be categorized as which of the following?
aexempt
b minimal risk
c at risk
d none of the above
14 Measuring characteristics of potential participants to identify those who may be at risk of harm in the study is called _____.
a debriefing
b prescreening
c informed consent
d risk reduction
15 The difference between phenomena and theories is essentially the same as the difference between which of the following?
a observations and models
b correlational studies and experiments
c significant and nonsignificant results
d models and hypotheses
16 How does a framework differ from a theory?
aA framework is usually more specific than a theory.
b A framework is usually more general than a theory.
c A framework cannot be tested but a theory can.
d A framework can be tested but a theory cannot.
17 For every _____ there are many plausible _____.
a fact; phenomena
b theory; researchers
c phenomenon; theories
d researcher; variables
18 As a general rule, every phenomenon has which of the following?
a no real explanation
b one clear explanation
c many plausible explanations
d one discoverer
19 Theories in evolutionary psychology tend to take which approach?
a functional
b mechanistic
c typological
d stage
20 A theory that explains a behavior primarily in terms of why it happens is which of the following?
aa mechanistic theory
b a typology
c a functional theory
d a hypothesis
21 The general approach that scientists use to create and test theories is called which of the following?
a the functional-mechanistic method
b the theory-model-phenomenon approach
c the quasi-logical hypothesis
d the hypothetico-deductive method
22 What is the first thing that you should do in constructing a new theory?
a Create a set of mathematical equations that might account for the phenomena of interest.
b Understand the phenomena of interest in detail, along with any existing theories of them.
c Conduct at least four to six new empirical studies.
d Decide which type of theory you want to construct.
23 Measurement is best defined as which of the following?
a directly comparing one individual to a standard reference individual
b the assignment of scores to individuals so the scores represent some characteristic of the individuals
c the use of an established measuring instrument such as a ruler or scale to describe an individual
d an objective method of counting individuals
24. Which of the following is the best example of a construct?
a. depression
b. number of siblings
c. height
d. annual income
25. What is it called when a researcher measures the same construct in different ways?
a. multiple measurement
b. exploratory research
c. inconsistent assessment
d. converging operations
26. There is a single best conceptual definition of every psychological construct.
a. True
b. False
27. There is a single best way to measure every psychological construct.
a. True
b. False
28. Face validity is the extent to which a psychological measure appears to measure the construct of interest.
a. True
b. False
29. A Cronbach’s alpha of .90 would indicate good internal consistency.
a. True
b. False
30. A psychological measure is valid to the extent that the scores it produces are consistent over time.
a. True
b. False
31. Psychological constructs can be observed directly by looking or listening.
a. True
b. False
32. What are the two defining features of an experiment?
a. control of extraneous variables; statistical analysis of the results
b. statistical analysis of the results; a comparison of two groups
c. a comparison of two groups; manipulation of an independent variable
d. manipulation of an independent variable; control of extraneous variables
33. Why are confounding variables bad?
a. They provide an alternative explanation for any observed difference between conditions.
b. They reduce internal validity.
c. They make it difficult to tell if the independent variable was responsible for the effect on the dependent variable.
d. all of the above
34. Why do researchers randomly assign participants to conditions?
a. to control extraneous variables
b. to ensure that they find a strong statistical relationship between the independent variable and the dependent variable
c. to discover whether there is a placebo effect
d. to avoid fatigue effects
35. Imagine that you are a participant in an experiment on the effects of morning exercise on mathematics performance. If this study uses a within-subjects design, which of the following would you do?
a. One day you take a math test after having exercised in the morning; another day you take a math test after not having exercised in the morning.
b. Either you exercise in the morning and then take a math test or you do not exercise in the morning and then take a math test.
c. You eat a healthy breakfast consisting of milk, juice, toast, and eggs.
d. You take a math test and then tell the researcher whether or not you exercised that morning.
36. Imagine an experiment with one independent variable: noise level (quiet vs. noisy). If the researcher is using a between-subjects design and wants to have 20 participants per condition, how many participants will he need all together?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 40
d. 400
37. What is the main advantage of conducting an experiment using a within-subjects design rather than a between-subjects design?
a. A within-subjects design eliminates the need for pilot testing.
b. A within-subjects design controls more extraneous variables.
c. A within-subjects design does not require manipulation of an independent variable.
d. A within-subjects design prevents carryover effects.
38. A researcher is conducting a study in which the dependent variable is mental concentration. If it is a within-subjects design with lots of different conditions, then which of the following is most likely to be a problem for the researcher?
a. practice effect
b. fatigue effect
c. context effect
d. floor effect
39. Experimenters manipulate independent variables and control extraneous variables.
a. True
b. False
40. In a between-subjects experiment, each participant is tested in only one condition.
a. True
b. False
41. In a within-subjects experiment, each participant is tested in more than one condition.
a. True
b. False
42. Researcher Robert Rosenthal is known for his work on which of the following?
a. the effect of smiling on helping
b. cultural differences in time perception
c. social anxiety
d. experimenter expectancy effects
43. What is the defining feature of nonexperimental research?
a. It is about personality and individual differences.
b. It lacks the manipulation of an independent variable, random assignment, or both.
c. It involves only one variable.
d. It has high external validity.
44. Which of the following is a reason to conduct nonexperimental research?
a. The researcher is interested in thinking.
b. The researcher wants to maximize the internal validity of the study.
c. The researcher wants to avoid carryover effects.
d. It would be unethical to manipulate the independent variable.
45. Which of the following is a type of nonexperimental research?
a. qualitative studies
b. correlational studies
c. quasi-experiments
d. all of the above
46. Which of the following is the defining feature of correlational research?
a. An independent variable is manipulated while extraneous variables are controlled.
b. One variable is measured and described.
c. Research participants are interviewed in depth about their experiences.
d. Two variables are measured and the relationship between them is assessed.
47. Coding of participant behaviors is generally an important part of which of the following?
a. archival data collection
b. sport psychology
c. quasi-experimental research
d. naturalistic observation
48. Archival data would be least likely to be used in which of the following?
a. an experiment
b. a correlational study
c. a qualitative study
d. a single-variable study
49. Qualitative research is meant to do which of the following?
a. generate novel research questions
b. explore people’s “lived experience”
c. address broad questions
d. all of the above
50. Which of the following is a common data collection method in qualitative research?
a. administering questionnaires with rating scale responses
b. taking multiple physiological measures
c. using computer simulations
d. giving unstructured interviews
51. Data analysis in qualitative research is most likely to include which of the following?
a. means and standard deviations
b. inferential statistics
c. unfalsifiable theories
d. detailed examples of participant responses
52. What are the two main characteristics of survey research?
a. large random samples and self-report measures
b. self-report measures and face-to-face interviews
c. face-to-face interviews and statistical analysis
d. statistical analysis and large random samples
53. “Is there anything else you would like to tell us about?” is an example of an open-ended item.
a. True
b. False
54. Closed-ended items provide a set of response options for respondents to choose from.
a. True
b. False
55. A researcher who stands in a shopping mall and approaches anyone who looks to him like they would complete a survey is using random sampling.
a. True
b. False
56. Researchers are most likely to use open-ended items under which of the following conditions?
a. They have a specific construct that they want to measure.
b. They do not have preconceived ideas about how people will respond.
c. They want their data to be quick and easy to analyze.
d. They are conducting their survey over the Internet.
57. The BRUSO model is a model of which of the following?
a. how people respond to survey questionnaire items
b. the process of administering a survey
c. good survey questionnaire items
d. none of the above
58. Survey research tends to use which of the following?
a. nonrepresentative sampling
b. convenience sampling
c. nonprobability sampling
d. probability sampling
59. What is the best way to address the problem of nonresponse bias?
a. ignore the nonresponders when analyzing the data
b. force everyone to respond
c. do everything possible to maximize response rates
d. write unbiased questionnaire items
60. What are the two main functions of the introduction to a survey questionnaire?
a. to encourage participation and establish informed consent
b. to establish the legitimacy of the survey and put respondents at ease
c. to inform the respondents of their rights and protect the researcher from lawsuits
d. to hide the true purpose of the survey and to establish rapport with respondents
61. High-level APA style consists of rules about grammar, spelling, punctuation, and formatting.
a. True
b. False
62. An APA-style abstract is usually about two pages long.
a. True
b. False
63. Which of the following presents the major sections of an APA style empirical research report in the correct order?
a. Introduction, Method, Results, Discussion
b. Method, Results, Discussion, Abstract
c. Abstract, Discussion, Method, Results
d. Method, Introduction, Discussion, Results
64. The two broad themes of high-level APA style writing are that it is _____ and _____.
a. technical; thought provoking
b. creative; engaging
c. formal; straightforward
d. interesting; controversial
65. Which of the following is an example of a low-level rule of APA style?
a. Avoid personally insulting other researchers.
b. Use number words for numbers lower than 10.
c. An empirical research report should start with a title page.
d. Write in a simple and clear manner.
66. The title of an APA style research report should generally be which of the following?
a. typed in all capital letters
b. cute and attention grabbing
c. highly technical
d. no more than 12 words long
67. The literature review of an APA style introduction section should do which of the following?
a. cite and discuss the three most important studies on the current topic
b. provide an exhaustive list of all research conducted on the current topic
c. make an argument for why the current research question is worth addressing
d. discuss only new research that has been published in the past five years
